2nd Battalion, 15th Field Artillery Regiment (2-15FA) MQF Practice Test

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• What does a round landing target or range correct provide a spotting as during a registration?
• Which control type allows for maximum flexibility in conducting fire support operations?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for an ammunition remaining report?
• When is a gun-target line considered hot?
• What task is characterized by a force trading space for time against an enemy?
• What is the total number of sub munitions in the M864 DPICM?
• What are the methods of target location?
• What type of operation is aimed at defeating an enemy attack while economizing forces?
• What spotting term is used when bursts show an equal number of airbursts and graze bursts?
• True / False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.
• In which aircraft sensor posture does the lead aircraft focus on the friendly force while the wing aircraft scans the objective?
• What scenario can lead to the requirement of passing "ground commander’s risk assessment"?
• What is a tactical plan for using the weapons of a unit so that their fire will be coordinated?
• Fill in the circular error, in feet and meters, for CAT IV?
• What is one of the primary responsibilities of a JTAC during CAS missions?
• What is a requirement for personnel authorized to perform JFO duties?
• What field artillery team is organic to each maneuver battalion and selected units to plan and coordinate all available company supporting fires?
• How is a registration initiated during a military operation?
• What term is used by a joint terminal attack controller during Type 1 and 2 control for granting weapons release clearance?
• What involves characterizing detected objects to support engagement decisions?
• What does the term "Over" indicate in range spottings?
• Which entity within the Theater Air Control System allocates resources through the air tasking order?
• A _____ consists of two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously.
• What is the approximate length and width for a Final Protective Fire using 4 tubes of 120mm Mortars?
• What is the primary purpose of obscuring smoke on the battlefield?
• Which of the following best describes the communication method used in the laser grid target location during an adjust fire mission?
• In the context of artillery operations, what does the term "fire for effect" refer to?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for a nonscheduled fire mission report?
• What type of target's loss will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action?
• In military operations, what is the primary purpose of a Fire Support Team?
• Which type of offensive operation is designed to develop the situation and establish contact?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the 14 methods of control from ATP 3-09.30?
• What brevity term indicates that an object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor?
• What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement?
• For CFF requests, what direction will observers convert their directions to unless specified otherwise?
• What brevity term is a call to inbound aircraft that indicates the LZ, HLZ, or DZ has enemy activity below the prebriefed risk tolerance?
• What is specifically defined as an area where any weapon system may fire without additional coordination?
• Which of the following is a key component of fire support planning?
• What is defined as the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects that are not lawful military targets?
• Which type of smoke is primarily used for signaling purposes?
• An OF fan has how many radial arms that are 100 mils apart and cover 1,600 mils?
• Who serves as the principal fire support advisor to the commander when attached to a company or troop?
• True or False: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters, the objective of impact registration is to get spotting's of four rounds (two over and two short).
• What identification is derived from observing and analyzing target characteristics?
• How is the sheaf adjusted when using mortars during registration?
• What type of target is represented by target number AA1000 with an altitude of 420m and a description of ENY Dismounts?
• What net provides a means for the control of aircraft?
• True or False: The observer serves as the "eyes" of the indirect fire systems and the FDC serves as the "brain" of the system.
• What tactical mission task physically renders an enemy combat-ineffective until reconstituted?
• Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of how many mils?
• In a polar plot mission, what indicates how far above or below the observer's location the target is?
• What does the letter 'C' in the memory aid FA-PARCA represent?
• During a call for fire, what does 'clearance to fire' mean regarding "at my command" or "danger close"?
• What radar zone prevents radar from reporting acquisitions around friendly units?
• What is the observer's determination of the location of the burst called?
• What additional information is sent along with the warning order in the first transmission of the naval surface fire support (NSFS) call for fire?
• What term describes the act of designing a force to meet a unique task or mission?
• Which is NOT a method for achieving responsive fires?
• What does line 7 of the JFO target brief refer to?
• Which line of the JFO target brief indicates the location of friendlies?
• What is a type of munition that corrects for ballistic conditions using guidance up to the aimpoint?
• What command relationship signifies a relatively permanent placement of units within an organization?
• How many options are typically used to employ the fire support team?
• What is the main role of Field Artillery?
• When using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission, how are the corrections sent?
• Which tactical mission task results in temporary degradation of a force's performance?
• What process prioritizes targets and determines the appropriate fires to support mission planning?
• What brevity term signifies a FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch?
• Who is ultimately responsible for all aspects of joint fires management?
• What must the observer describe about the target for effective ammunition determination?
• Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position but is normally within _____ to _____ meters (danger close) of friendly positions.
• Attitude is sent to the nearest how many mils?
• What type of target is specifically known and planned for action in the operational environment?
• Which letter of the memory aid FA-PARCA stands for the concept of 'Fire'?
• Which zone is forbidden from reporting targets detected around friendly forces?
• What method of control tells the FDC the total time to engage a target?
• Fire support planning is integrated through targeting and the running estimate. It includes developing integrated fire plans using what?
• What term describes the measurement of a feature or location on the earth to determine latitude, longitude, and elevation?
• When the 50 meter range bracket is established, how many rounds are fired with data 25 meters in the opposite direction?
• Which of the following is NOT a use of illumination?
• What is the approximate length and width for a Final Protective Fire using 8 guns of 155mm Howitzers?
• What FDC command will the FO receive after sending a CFF as "At My Command" or "By Round, At My Command"?
• What aspect does the letter 'R' in the memory aid FA-PARCA stand for?
• A _____ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack.
• When identifying an enemy approximately 500 meters away and announcing DANGER CLOSE, what adjustment technique is best suited?
• A criterion used to assess friendly actions related to task accomplishment is called?
• As an observer, which of the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect are you solely responsible for?
• If a FO receives a Splash call and does not observe impact, what spotting would they make?
• What would an observer use to communicate the need for a specific target description in the MTO?
• The joint targeting cycle consists of how many phases?
• Which type of smoke is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers?
• What DA form is used for the Target List Worksheet?
• Which attack method requires the intended target to be tally/contact/captured by the aircrew?
• What brevity term means to discontinue stated activity?
• What type of support is given to the supported force as a whole rather than to specific subdivisions?
• What method of control specifies the time in minutes and seconds for rounds to impact on the target?
• In the context of SLOCTOP, which is NOT part of the L - Location item?
• What command is given when an observer achieves a measurable airburst during the precision registration time portion?
• What does the P in SLOCTOP stand for?
• When three airbursts and one graze burst are spotted, what is the HOB correction during precision registration?
• Which spotting indicates that the observer has lost sight of the round's impact?
• Which factor is crucial for achieving operational success in joint fire support?
• Which aircraft sensor posture involves both the lead and wing aircraft concentrating on the objective?
• True or False: Army Attack Aviation can perform CAS in support of another component.
• Which military role is closely associated with Terminal Attack Control (TAC)?
• Which method is effective for ensuring first-round accuracy in artillery targeting?
• What correction value is indicated for one airburst and one graze burst during registration?
• Which area imposes specific restrictions on fires that exceed those restrictions without coordination?
• Which term refers to a line that defines surface areas for coordinating operations between adjacent units?
• Linear and rectangular targets require orientation in terms of direction. The observer must send target description, length, width, and what else in the third transmission of the call for fire?
• What is "Time on Target" primarily used for in a fire mission?
• What is the rate of descent for the M485A2 illumination rounds?
• Which munition can be utilized with the 120mm mortar to minimize collateral damage?
• Which of the following is a primary goal of a Final Protective Fire?
• If the registration point is equidistant between two sets of rounds, what does the observer determine the range refinement to be?
• What facilitates the efficient use of airspace for air operations and fires?
• Who is responsible for integrating fire support with the maneuver plan and issuing guidance including for fire support?
• If conditions preclude briefing full BDA, which information is sufficient to pass?
• How does an observer determine the average deviation when conducting registration?
• Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic compass, what precision can an observer measure direction?
• What is the minimum deviation correction for smoke?
• Which task results in rendering enemy personnel incapable of interfering with an operation?
• Fill in the circular error, in feet and meters, for CAT I?
• How many transmissions are transmitted to the ship for the NSFS call for fire?
• Which statement is true regarding a spotting of "LINE" during an artillery observation?
• True or False: The FDC announces SPLASH to the observer 5 seconds before round impact.
• What branch is associated with a Battlefield Coordination Line?
• What is the HOB correction when two airbursts and two graze bursts are observed during precision registration?
• Which term describes support that is not directed to a force with specific details but is still essential?
• What are the two Field Artillery core competencies provided to Army operations?
• Which branch of service employs its attack rotary wing aviation primarily as a CAS platform?
• What are the initial 15 corrections to make in sequence following an observer's spotting?
• During an impact registration, how many rounds are fired to establish the initial 50 meter range bracket?
• Which rotary-wing movement technique is for when enemy contact is possible?
• What task is aimed at rendering a force incapable of achieving its objectives?
• What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor)?
• What is the last step of the CAS execution template?
• What does 'Danger Close' refer to in terms of military operations?
• What maneuver control measure is assigned by the maritime commander for joint fire support?
• Which support relationship is designed to reinforce a similar-type unit while supporting the force as a whole?
• Which rotary-wing attack tactic is performed when the aircraft is in level, forward flight?
• _____ can support or conduct close combat attack, CAS, strike coordination and reconnaissance, AI, and other joint fires missions.
• What integrates the fires warfighting function into operations?
• What are the danger close distances for artillery and mortars / 5-inch naval guns and TLAM?
• When adjusting the sheaf for mortars, what factors does the observer base their determination on?
• Which list contains valid military targets with engagement restrictions set by higher authorities?
• What is the initial height of burst in meters for the M485A2 illumination round?
• What is the purpose of the Excalibur projectile design?
• What is the automatic HOB correction for the time portion of precision registration if the first round is a graze burst?
• The pattern of the M22/M24 binocular reticle is divided into increments of what?
• What fuze can be added to increase precision for the 155mm Artillery M795 HE and M549A1 HERA rounds?
• Which coordination line plays a critical role in managing the use of artillery in joint operations?
• What brevity term means the sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?
• Permissive fire support coordination measures aim to _____ the attack of targets?
• Which scenario would require a 'readback' in a CAS operation?
• When should you send the observer-target direction if it has changed?
• What is the specific targeting of enemy indirect fire systems before they engage friendly forces?
• What is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire?
• Which fire support coordination measure requires all fires to be coordinated with affected commanders prior to engagement?
• Which is used as the primary means to determine the targets' location?
• Which term describes the fire support coordination area in relation to CAS operations?
• True or False: Restrictive fire support coordination measures provide safeguards for friendly forces and noncombatants.
• _____ normally produces the specific effect on a target with the minimum expenditure of ammunition.
• What is the main purpose of conducting an impact registration?
• Fill in the circular error, in feet and meters, for CAT III?
• Which line in the CAS brief indicates a granted authority for action?
• What action should an observer consider if angle T is 500 mils or greater and more correction is being received than requested?
• Are aircrews required to identify friendly locations prior to conducting an engagement after receiving a call for fire?
• What must be done once a range bracket has been split and the last fired round is within a specified distance?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M252/M252A1 81mm mortar?
• Which FIST employment option maintains FIST assets at the company or troop level?
• What is the exact location at sea from which a fire support ship delivers fires?
• What is the role of a JTAC or FAC(A)?
• For target AA1020, which artillery unit is specified?
• What is the first step of the CAS execution template?
• Which illumination pattern is fired perpendicular to the observer target line?
• What range spotting would you assign if a round impacts directly on the registration point?
• Which vehicle employment option might degrade the supported unit but maximizes assets available to the battalion or brigade commander?
• What does the spotting term "Air" indicate?
• What is the number one priority for a team occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP?
• True or False: Once a target number is assigned, the observer should begin each correction with the observer identification, followed by the target number, and ending with the desired correction.
• True or False: In a shift from known point mission, the range shift is related to the observer's location.
• Which rotary-wing movement technique is appropriate when enemy contact is imminent?
• Do Army Attack Aviation or AC-130 engagements require terminal attack control?
• What is a target called that has scheduled actions for prosecution at a specified time?
• Which aspect is critical for effective planning in CAS operations?
• Which method of control would likely be used to give a timing command without needing immediate action?
• Which types of close air support terminal attack control can a joint fires observer provide target information in support of?
• What measures do commanders use to define lines of responsibility for friendly forces?
• Which of the following is NOT a part of combat identification?
• What does the spotting "Range Correct" signify?
• Which rotary-wing attack tactic is described as having the aircraft stationary or with little forward motion?
• What is the last line of the Army attack aviation RW 5-Line Request?
• What term is used by a JTAC/FAC(A) during all types of control to authorize aircraft to proceed with the attack profile, but not grant weapons release?
• What is defined as a line beyond which surface-to-surface fires may fire without additional coordination?
• What are the three types of deviation spottings?
• What is the second line of the Army attack aviation RW 5-Line Request?
• Which radar zone is critical for protecting assets essential to mission success?
• What is a target that has a high priority for fire delivery based on time or importance?
• Which form is used by an observer to track rounds and spot the registration point?
• Which entity within the Theater Air Control System processes immediate air support requests and coordinates CAS sorties?
• Which adjustment technique is preferred for responsive fires when the observer is experienced?
• What brevity term signifies acquisition of laser designation or indicates that the platform is laser spot tracker (LST) capable?
• What task/effect integrates direct and indirect fires to disrupt an enemy's formation?
• What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire ordnances?
• How many steps are there in the CAS execution template?
• The objective of an impact registration is to get spotting's of how many rounds along the observer-target line?
• What are the four adjustment techniques for conducting area adjustment fires?
• If an Excalibur projectile fails to acquire adequate GPS signal during flight, what is designed to happen to the round?
• What is the purpose of a gun-target line in military operations?
• Which of the following is NOT a reason for MARK to be included in the method of engagement?
• True or False: The two types of adjustment that may be employed are area and precision.
• Which target type requires proper labeling for target number AA1005?
• What term describes an attack that diverts attention from the principal operation?
• What type of offensive operation is focused on destroying enemy forces and securing terrain?
• What is the role of an air liaison unit co-located with ground maneuver units?
• What target type is associated with target number AA1010?
• Which method of control would an observer use to specify when rounds should impact on the target?
• Which of the following is a method of controlling fire when visibility is limited?
• If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, which method of control would the observer utilize?
• To what precision must an observer be able to self-locate without navigational aids?
• When does the JTAC/FAC(A) state the method of attack?
• If the observer's OT Factor is 2 with spotting's of +7R, +15R, -5L, and +3R, what deviation refinement should be sent to the FDC?
• For Excalibur calls for fire, to what minimum precision will the grid locations be expressed?
• What is the proper action when the rounds during an impact registration are split according to the established bracket?
• In the context of air operations, what does "JFO" stand for?
• What does the warning order consist of?
• Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by massing fire with precision on targets.
• What are the four Fire Support functions?
• Which forward observer control option is best for a highly trained FO team that can call for fire from available assets?
• What target type corresponds with target number AA1015?
• Which type of fire is designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?
• Which operation orients on the force or facility being protected?
• Which adjustment technique guarantees FFE rounds are within 50 meters of the target?
• What is defined as a boundary that prohibits fires or their effects from crossing between friendly forces?
• True or False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75-inch rockets, and Hellfires.
• Which relationship requires a force to support another supporting unit?
• What is indicated by the term "Angle T" in a call for fire?
• What is the term for a list protecting certain objects from military operations under international law?
• A _____ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation.
• What is the primary purpose of "Request Splash" in an artillery call for fire?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term summarizes naval gunfire support (NGFS) capability when unknown to an NGFS station?
• What offensive operation is designed to catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape?
• During a CFF execution, if you hear an impact but cannot visually confirm it after 5 seconds, what spotting should you make?
• Which entity is typically located with the joint fires element in the joint special operations task force?
• What is the link between the air support operations center and subordinate tactical air control parties for coordination?
• Do Army Attack Aviation and Special Operations Forces use the same format for a call for fire?
• Which line of the 9-Line CAS Brief describes the Target Location?
• Which fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?
• How far away from the target should an auxiliary adjusting point be?
• Which command relationship involves the authority to organize and employ subordinate forces?
• What is the type of defensive operation that focuses on denying enemy access to specific terrain?
• Which vehicle employment option positions the FSO in the fire support vehicle?
• Who is the primary advisor to the maneuver commander for planning and integrating field artillery?
• Which type of smoke is used on the battlefield to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities?
• What legal frameworks must the selection of targets, munitions, and techniques of fire comply with?
• What are the two methods of attack for close air support (CAS)?
• What process refers to fixing, observing, and reporting the location of friendly forces?
• What organization assists the Marine air-ground task force commander with fire support planning and coordination?
• What should be communicated if the CAS engagement was "unsuccessful"?
• True / False: A quick smoke mission requires the observer to send length, maneuver target line, wind direction, and duration in the call for fire.
• Vertical shift is only sent in the target location if the difference in vertical shift is greater than or equal to how many meters?
• True or False: Precision fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and destruction missions.
• What is the approximate mean target location error for observers with basic equipment such as maps and binoculars?
• What is CAS augmented by machine-to-machine exchange of situational awareness and targeting messages?
• What type of support relationship requires a force to support another specific force and respond directly to requests for assistance?
• What process involves detection, identification, and location of a target for effective employment of capabilities?
• What FDC command is used to signify the number of rounds specified in the fire for effect has been fired?
• Which of the following is the first line for the 9-Line CAS Brief?
• What is the minimum range correction for smoke?
• Which letter corresponds to 'Assessment' in the memory aid FA-PARCA?
• How many types of height of burst (HOB) spottings are recognized?
• If target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give what additional detail?
• What brevity term means no ordnance remaining?
• When adjusting illumination rounds, what are HOB corrections sent in multiples of?
• True or False: In a polar plot mission, the FDC only needs to know the target location.
• What is the fourth step of the CAS execution template?
• What are the five parts of a terrain sketch?
• What is the term for a defensive operation involving organized movement away from the enemy?
• In a BDA report for a CAS engagement, which of the following is essential to communicate?
• During an illumination mission, if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground and the OT factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB?
• Which Army element serves as the senior Army operational commander's liaison with the air component?
• What term grants weapons release clearance to an aircraft for attacking targets within JTAC/FAC(A) parameters?
• Which radar zone is monitored closely to detect weapon activity in enemy territory?
• What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires control of individual attacks and is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release or is unable to visually acquire the target?
• What brevity term would you use to request the use of briefed communication procedures to counter communications jamming?
• Should JTACs/FAC(A)s respond to readbacks of a CAS brief with just "readback correct" or "good readback"?
• Which offensive operation follows a successful attack to disorganize the enemy in depth?
• What is the designation for an area where fires or their effects are prohibited?
• True or False: During O - Observation, all team members must be proficient in recognizing friendly or adversary forces.
• Which term describes a round that detonates on impact?
• During a quick smoke Call for Fire (CFF) using shell smoke (HC), you use HE in adjustment until which bracket is split?
• What is the purpose of the Observer sending a correction for HOB during an illumination mission?
• Which illumination pattern is best for illuminating an area with practically no shadows?
• What maneuver control measure helps coordinate military operations?
• Which entity is the senior agency within the Marine Corps Command and Control System?
• If an observer wants HE and then WP what term would they use in the call for fire?
• What is the objective of the time portion of the precision registration?
• How wide, in meters, should you use a quick smoke mission to obscure areas?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M120/M120A1 120mm mortar using the M929 WP round?
• What is the initial height of burst for all 105mm illumination rounds?
• What brevity term indicates that inbound aircraft should be aware of enemy activity at an LZ, HLZ, or DZ?
• Who represents fire support for the maneuver platoon?
• What is a key characteristic of the AC-130J?
• What type of control requires control of individual attacks and the JTAC/FAC (A) to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and visually acquire the target for each attack?
• Before splitting a 200 meter bracket during an impact registration, what does the observer do?
• In what scenario might an observer call for FFE before completing a full bracket split?
• What is a synchronized combined arms activity that allows maneuver through an obstacle?
• _____ can be conducted at any place and time friendly forces are in close proximity to enemy forces.
• How many sub munitions are in the M449 family of APICMs?
• What correction is needed when there are no airbursts observed during precision registration?
• True or False: Aircrew and commanders refer to the standing posture column of the REDs to determine when DANGER CLOSE procedures apply, regardless of friendly force posture.
• Is it imperative for the JTAC and JFO to participate in the planning process for successful JFO employment?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for a new target report?
• What is the term for an operation where a force moves through another force's combat positions to contact the enemy?
• Which type of target involves actions determined by deliberate targeting and triggered dynamically upon detection?
• What may result from failing to select proper shell fuze combinations?
• True / False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and deception.
• How many sub munitions are found in the M4831A1 DPICM?
• Which phrase is used to maintain positive control of the SOF Gunship or Army Attack Aviation during an engagement?
• Which operations support tactical plans by protecting aviation assets near the forward line of own troops?
• What must be indicated in the Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire if "danger close" has been announced?
• What type of counterfire provides immediate indirect and joint fires to neutralize enemy indirect fire weapons?
• What is the minimum deviation or range correction made while adjusting illumination?
• What is the purpose of actions executed to mislead an adversary's decision makers?
• What must the observer specify in the target location portion of an Excalibur call for fire?
• Which command relationship involves being assigned as an essential part of a military organization?
• Which aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75-inch rockets, AGM-65, HARM, and SDBs?
• What additional information can be sent along with the MTO?
• What brevity term refers to oscillating an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target?
• In an immediate mission, how many transmissions are typically required to send the call for fire?
• What goal is vital for planning fire support in a maneuver environment?
• Which mission type is essential when assessing friendly elements under fire?
• _____ is the planning and executing of fires so that targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons.
• Which forward observer control option requires the FO to contact the FIST for each call for fire?
• What command relationship refers to the authority over forces limited to detailed direction and movement control within the operational area?
• Which forward observer control option assigns a specific fire support asset to an FO?
• For a successful CAS engagement, which attribute is notably mentioned in the BDA report?
• What is the goal of any indirect firing unit?
• Which of the following is NOT a remark but a restriction in the CAS brief?
• In a call for fire, what does "PRF Code" stand for?
• What type of defensive operation focuses on the defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for an unfired target report?
• If the registration point is closer to the opposite end of the bracket, what range refinement does the observer determine?
• Fill in the circular error, in feet and meters, for CAT II?
• What type of mission is normally fired on planned targets, with an associated duration?
• What does the letter 'T' in the TEFACHR situation update stand for?
• What is the standard artillery piece utilized by C Battery, 2-15 FA?
• What adjustment factor is used when calculating the Height of Burst (HOB) for illumination rounds?
• What four items are included in the MTO?
• What must you advise the aircrew when executing CAS without a JTAC or FAC(A) qualified individual?
• What asset provides the commander flexibility, range, speed, lethality, precision, and the ability to mass fires at a desired time and place?
• What is a criterion used to assess changes in system behavior linked to the attainment of an end state?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M982 Excalibur projectile?
• _____ is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact (i.e., close combat attack) or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces.
• When a laser range finder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest how many meters?
• If you measure an angular deviation to be 40 mils to the right, how would you record this spotting?
• Which vehicle employment option maximizes use of the laser designator and rangefinder while the FSO rides in the commander's vehicle?
• What type of mission typically involves a predetermined duration for firing?
• In a quick smoke mission, what critical component is NOT typically included in the observer's call for fire?
• What are the six elements of the call for fire?
• Which range of wind speed is best for the production of smoke screens?
• What type of radar zone indicates areas to be monitored and reported promptly in enemy territory?
• Which of the following is a method for aircraft and surface fires integration?
• What method of control indicates the observer cannot see the target due to weather or terrain?
• At what meter bracket can the observer request FFE when the PER is 38 meters or larger?
• Which of the following best describes a target?
• What is the responsibility of the wing aircraft in a defensive sensor posture?
• What brevity term indicates that the laser designator system is inoperative?
• True or False: When conducting an immediate mission, the call for fire is sent in three transmissions.
• Which rotary-wing movement technique is employed when enemy contact is remote?
• What equipment can JTACs and FAC(A)s use for marking targets and providing terminal guidance?
• Which element is NOT included in the target description for the FDC?
• What additional line of the CAS 9-line is mandatory readback when working with NATO forces?
• The initial height of burst for all 120mm illumination rounds is?
• Azimuth is measured clockwise from what reference line?
• When using the flash to bang method of distance determination, how many meters per second do you multiply by the number of seconds between the time the round impacts and the time the sound reaches the observer?
• Which term describes a three-dimensional permissive fire support coordination measure used for expeditious attacks?
• When converting degrees to mils, which factor is used for the conversion?
• What is the range refinement necessary if the registration point is nearer the last rounds fired?
• What is the designation for the round that can reduce the number of munitions needed to achieve desired effects with minimal collateral damage?
• What are the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect?
• Which of the following methods can be used to integrate and deconflict aircraft and surface fires?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M777 series 155mm howitzer w/M232?
• What technique is used to move rounds towards the desired target during registration?
• What brevity term is used for marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer?
• What does the term "Danger Close" refer to in a CAS operation?
• What is the name of the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the observer-target and gun-target lines?
• What area is designated as a free fire area for immediate engagement of all threats?
• What term describes zones established for effective command and control over artillery operations?
• In the case of one airburst and three graze bursts spotted during registration, what is the HOB correction?
• What term refers to a brief, intense bombardment on selected targets?
• Which ordnance can be deployed by the MQ-9 UAS?
• What brevity term means sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?
• What is a target identified too late to be included in the deliberate targeting process?
• Which is NOT considered part of T - Targeting when occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP?
• What type of mission is used when engaging a planned target that has friendly elements under fire?
• Which FIST employment option ensures that most platoons in maneuver companies or troops receive a forward observer?
• During an illumination mission your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds. With a rate of descent of 5 meters per second, what is your HOB correction?
• What FDC command will the FO receive after sending a CFF as "DNL" or after establishing a priority target?
• Before a control correction during immediate suppression, what must you send?
• Utilizing the flash to bang method of distance determination, if you count 14 seconds before hearing the impact, how far is the impact?
• Which rotary-wing attack tactic is delivered while the aircraft is at altitude and in descending forward flight?
• What concept involves the arrangement of artillery to maximize coverage and effectiveness?
• Which illumination pattern should be used when an area requires more illumination than one gun can provide?
• What is designated as the area for artillery units to maneuver to enhance survivability?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M224/M224A1 60mm mortar?
• _____ is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking aircraft.
• Which parameters are critical in calculating the firing solution for artillery pieces?
• True or False: Hand measurements of angular deviation are consistent among all observers.
• Which entity serves as an Army liaison to the joint force air component commander based on the scenario?
• What is a key advantage of using 155mm Howitzers in artillery missions?
• What step is required for mortars during registration but not for artillery?
• What does the letter 'A' appear twice for in the memory aid FA-PARCA?
• What type of radar zone focuses on attacking hostile firing systems?
• Which FIST employment option consolidates the FIST at the battalion level?